How when some do not “literary canon?”?

Dilemma caused by Katie S: How does when become part of the “literary canon?”?

What I mean to ask is, when was Jane Austen considered part of the canon and how does that come about? Is it just assumed that she is part of the canon? Is it because her works have survived? Also, were female writers back then (especially since she was a novelist) allowed to be part of the canon?

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Answer by Bob Johnson

The idea of a literary canon also implies some such official status. To enter the canon, or more properly, to be entered into the canon is to gain certain obvious privileges. So the writer’s work needs to be approved by critics, the public and his contemporaries.

Belonging to the canon confers status, social, political, economic, aesthetic, none of which can easily be extricated from the others. Belonging to the canon is a guarantee of quality.

Hence, when Jane Austen began gaining increased critical recognition for her works and they are increasingly reproduced and read, she is merely a popular writer. But if we can conclude that her works have great social and aesthetic influence, and that it can be objectively defined as a great work and immortalized as such, her works have entered the western literary canon.

There have been feminist response to the idea of the literary canon, and they argue that works of women and homosexuals and other marginalized social groups are usually neglected. And I do think that female writers do face some resistance, in the sense that many of them will be judged by male standards. But Jane Austen’s works are very much universal in a certain sense, hence, they can be appreciated by both men and women.

Answer by Eibhlinn

Hard to explain the exact process, but it goes through the Academics. Basically when university professors and lecturers start studying a book, it gains a more official status.

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(Pachelbel’s Canon in D) Arranged by Cleo Laine & James Galway.

How when some do not “literary canon?”?